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Katididaustralia 66F
49 posts
10/23/2015 2:02 am
Hell


Definition: The word 'hell' is found in many Bible translations. In the same verses other translations read 'the grave', 'the world of the dead' etc. Other Bibles simply transliterate the original-language words that are sometimes rendered 'hell'; that is, they express them with the letters of our alphabet but leave the words untranslated, such as the Hebrew 'sheohl' and its Greek equivalent 'haides', which refer, not to an individual burial place, but to the common grave of dead mankind; also the Greek 'ge-enna', which is used as a symbol of eternal destruction. However, both in christendom and in many other religions it is taught that hell is a place inhabited by demons and where the wicked, after death, are punished and some believe this to be with torment.

Does the Bible indicate whether the dead experience pain?
Ecclesiastes 9:5 + 6 For the living know that they will die, but the dead know nothing at all, nor do they have any more reward, because all memory of them is forgotten. Also, their love and their hate and their jealousy have already perished, and they no longer have any share in what is done under the sun.
Ecclesiastes 9:10 Whatever your hand finds to do, do with all your might, for there is no work nor planning nor knowledge nor wisdom in the Grave(Sheol), where you are going.
So, if the dead are conscious of nothing they obviously feel no pain.
Psalm 146:4 His spirit goes out, he returns to the ground; On that very day his thoughts perish.

Does the Bible indicate that the soul survives the death of the body?
Ezekiel 18:4 Look! All the souls—to me they belong. As the soul of the father so also the soul of the —to me they belong. The soul who sins is the one who will die.
Some Bible use the words 'soul' while others use terms such as 'the man' and 'the person'.
"The concept of 'soul', meaning a purely spiritual, immaterial reality, separate from the 'body'.....does not exist in the Bible." - La Parole de Dieu(Paris, 1960) Georges Ausou, professor of Sacred Scripture, Rouen Seminary, France, p.128
"Although the Hebrew word 'nefesh' in the Hebrew Scriptures is frequently translated as 'soul', it would be inaccurate to read into it a Greek meaning. 'Nefesh'....is never conceived of as operating separately from the body. In the New Testament the Greek word 'psyche' is often translated as 'soul' but again should not be readily understood to have the meaning the word had for the Greek philosophers.It usually means 'life' or vitality', or, at times, 'the self'." - The Encyclopedia American, 1977, Volume 25, p. 236.
Bible usage shows the 'soul' to be a person or an animal or the life that a person or an animal enjoys.

Why is there confusion as to what the Bible says about hell?
"Much confusion and misunderstanding has been caused through the early translations of the Bible persistently rendering the Hebrew Sheol and the Greek Hades and Gehenna by the word hell. The simple transliteration of these words by the translators of the revised editions of the Bible has not sufficed to appreciably clear up this confusion and misconception." - The Encyclopedia Americana, 1942, Volume 14, p. 81.

Translators have allowed their personal beliefs to colour their work instead of being consistent in their rendering of the original-language words. For example: 91) The King James Version rendered 'sheohl' as 'hell'. 'the grave' and 'the pit; 'haides' is therein rendered both 'hell' and 'grave'; 'ge-enna' is also translated 'hell'. (2) Today's English Version transliterates 'haides' as 'Hades' and also renders it as 'hell' and 'the world of the dead' and besides rendering 'hell' from 'haides' it uses that same translation for 'ge-enna'. (3) The Jerusalem Bible transliterates 'haides' six times but in other passages it translates it as 'hell' and as 'the underworld' as well as translating 'ge-nna' as 'hell' as it does 'haides' in two instances.
Thus the exact meanings of the original-language words have been obscured.

What is the 'fiery Gehenna' to which Jesus referred?
Reference to Gehenna appears 12 times in the Christian Greek Scriptures. Five times it is directly associated with fire. Translators have rendered the Greek expression 'ge-ennan toupyros' as 'hell fire', 'fires of hell', 'fiery pit' and 'fires of Gehenna'.
Historical Background The Valley of Hinnom(Gehenna) was outside the walls of Jerusalem. For a time it was the site of idolatrous worship, including sacrifice. In the first century Gehenna was being used as the incinerator for the filth of Jerusalem. Bodies of dead animals were thrown into the valley to be consumed in the fires, to which sulfur, or brimstone, was added to assist the burning. Also bodies of executed criminals, who were considered undeserving of burial in a memorial tomb, were thrown into Gehenna. Thus at Matthew 5:29+30, Jesus spoke of the casting of one's "whole body" into Gehenna. If the body fell into the constantly burning fire it was consumed, but if it landed on a ledge of the deep ravine its putrefying flesh became infested with the ever-present worms, or maggots mentioned in Mark 9:47+48. Living humans were not pitched into Gehenna; so it was not a place of conscious torment.
At Matthew 10:28, Jesus warned his hearers to "be in fear of him that can destroy both soul and body in gehenna.". What does it mean? Notice that there is no mention here of torment in fires of Gehenna; rather, he says to "fear him that can destroy in Gehenna". By referring to the 'soul' separately, Jesus here emphasizes that God can destroy all of a person's life prospects; thus there is no hope of resurrection for him.
So, the references to the 'fiery Gehenna' have the same meaning as 'the lake of fire' of Revelations 21:8, namely, complete destruction, 'the second death.

What does the Bible say the penalty for sin is?
Romans 6: 7 For the wages sin pays is death,.....

After one's death, is a person still subject to further punishment for their sins?
Romans 6: 7 For the one who has died has been acquitted from his sin.

Is eternal torment of the wicked compatible with God's personality?
Jeremiah 7:31 They have built the high places of Topheth, which is in the Valley of the of Hinnom, in order to burn their sons and their daughters in the fire, something that I had not commanded and that had never even come into my heart.’
If it never came into God's heart, surely He does not have and use such a thing on a larger scale!
1John 4:8 God is love.

By what Jesus said about the rich man and Lazarus, did Jesus teach torment of the wicked after death?
If taken literally, this parable would mean that those enjoying divine favour would all fit at the bosom of one man, Abraham; that the water on one's fingertip would not be evaporated by the fire of Hades; that a mere drop of water would bring relief to one suffering thirst. Does that sound reasonable to you? Also, if it were literal it would conflict with other parts of the Bible and if the Bible were thus contradictory, would a lover of truth use it as a basis for faith?
Happily, we know that the Bible, the Word of God, does not contradict itself. God does not contradict Himself!
What, then does the parable mean? The 'rich man' represents the Pharisees. The 'beggar' Lazarus represents the common Jewish people who were despised by the Pharisees but who repented and became followers of Jesus. Their deaths were also symbolic, representing a change in circumstances. Thus, the formerly despised ones came into a position of divine favour and the formerly seemingly favoured ones were rejected by God while being tormented by the judgement messages delivered by the ones whom they had despised.
Luke 16:19-31, Luke 18:11, John 7:49, Matthew 21:31+32, Acts 5:33 + 7:54

What is the origin of the teaching of hellfire?
In ancient Babylonian and Assyrian beliefs the "nether world....is pictured as a place full of horrors and is presided over by gods and demons of great strength and fierceness." - The Religion of Babylonia and Assyria, Boston, 1898, Morris Jastrow, Jr,. p. 581
Early evidence of the fiery aspect of christendom's hell is found in the religion of ancient Egypt - The Book of the Dead, New Hyde Park, N.Y., 1960, with introduction by E. A. Wallis budge, pp. 144, 149, 151, 153, 161.
Buddhism, which dates back to the 6th century B.C.E., in time came to feature both hot and cold hells - The Encyclopedia Americana, 1977, Volume 14, p. 68.
Depictions of hell portrayed in catholic churches in Italy have been traced to Etruscan roots - La civilta etrusca, Milan, 1979, Werner Keller, p. 389.

However, the real roots of this God-dishonouring doctrine go much deeper. The fiendish concepts associated with a hell of torment slander God and originate with the chief slanderer of God, the devil(which name means slanderer), the one whom Jesus Christ, in John 8:44, called "'the father of the lie."

During Jesus’ earthly ministry, although he knew that he would be put to death as the ransom sacrifice, his flesh ‘rested in hope.’ This was because of his knowledge that his Father would resurrect him, that his sacrifice would successfully serve the ransom purpose, and that his flesh would not see corruption. That it would not stay in the grave to rot. Jehovah God evidently disposed of Jesus’ fleshly body in his own way (possibly disintegrating it into the atoms of which it was constituted). Jesus did not take back his fleshly body and thereby cancel out the ransom for which it was given, Acts 2:26, 31, Luke 24:2+3, 22+ 23; John 20:2
On the day of Pentecost 33 C.E., the apostle Peter referred to David’s death and quoted Psalm 16:10: “You will not leave my soul in Sheol.” After mentioning that David was still in his tomb, Peter applied those words to Jesus and indicated that David “saw beforehand and spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that neither was he forsaken in Hades(the grave) nor did his flesh see corruption. This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses.” Peter here used the word “Hades,” the Greek counterpart of the Hebrew word “Sheol.”
Thus, those said to be in Hades are in the same situation as those said to be in Sheol. They are sleeping in the grave, awaiting resurrection. Acts 2:29-32

From this it is very clear that Jesus did not go down into Hell, since there is no such place, but simply died and went to the place common to all mankind, that is, death.
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I hope this has furnished clear information and Scriptures for you Bible study. Of, course there are many more Scriptures that can be referenced also, especially those using the word 'soul'.

When I first began to understand this I simply replaced the word 'soul' with the word 'life' in my mind as I read. It sure does make the verses much clearer. Likewise, you can do this with 'hell', 'hades', 'sheol' and 'Gehenna' replacing them with 'the grave' and 'destruction'.

Yours,
Katidid.