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Blogs > juliana15 > My Blog


juliana15 35F
5 posts
10/27/2008 7:44 am
My Worry
There is this verse in the bible which i have always been worrying about,john 5:32.Does it mean that a woman should not marry after divorce?Why is it so,i thing i need help from the whole church.PLEAS HELP ME TO GET SOLUTION FOR MY WORRY.
((((JOHN 5:32))))

BUT I SAY TO YOU THAT WHOEVER DIVORCES HIS WIFE FOR ANY REASON EXCEPT SEXUAL IMMORALITY CAUSES HER TO COMMIT ADULTERY
Dundeal
(William Watson) 67M
18097 posts
10/27/2008 1:02 pm

 if your spouse has committed adultery then you are free to marry, cheers and welcome to blogland
May the Lord bless you and keep you


heiko4222 66M

11/8/2008 7:58 am

 Hi Juliane,

no - you must not worry about that. The bible and the christian law founded on the bible says only that a divorce is only possible in the case of christian reasons - named here sexual immorality. If you were married and your husband went to get divorced and is in another relationship or friendship you can be sure - and each one would agree - that he is now also in another sexual relation. And than there is the christian reason and you are divorced in faith and on the base of the bible. And then ther is no limit to fall in love again and marry again and create a loving godfearing family.

God bless you and thank you for your invitation. I was amazed and enjoyed it.

Heiko


heiko4222 66M

11/8/2008 8:04 am

 By the way - it is NOT JOHN 5:32 it is Matthew 5 : 32 and I am amazed that a lot of people are writing to you and it seems that they are not looking in her own bible and writing over things they dont have any knowledge from - in this case also let you lead from the bible which warns you for the wrong prophets and people who give wrong advises.

Be blessed

Heiko